Interesting graphic
Posted: Thu Sep 22, 2016 8:28 am
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But, you're logic is backward because you're somehow valuing those 10 people more than everyone else out there. Conversely... if your race of 10 members has one murderer while the white race has 1,000, it would be fair to say that your races has more murderous tendencies.Jeff250 wrote:Thunderbunny has also skewed the numbers in order to fit his narrative. Namely, why are the numbers per murderer's race? That makes the racial majority look less murderous of other races than they really are just due to their numbers. Imagine a rare race of people that only had 10 surviving members. White people could commit complete genocide against this race, and it wouldn't even show up on the graph.
Imagine that race X is 10% of the population and race Y is 90% of the population and that they are both equally likely to murder and that they choose their victims at random from the entire population. The "X killed by Y" bar is going to be barely visible compared to the "Y killed by X" bar, even though both X and Y are equally likely to murder and even though they just choose their victims at random from the entire population. This is why including the "blacks killed by whites" and "whites killed by blacks" bars in this graph is highly prejudicial and does nothing to compare anything we would actually care about.snoopy wrote:But, you're logic is backward because you're somehow valuing those 10 people more than everyone else out there. Conversely... if your race of 10 members has one murderer while the white race has 1,000, it would be fair to say that your races has more murderous tendencies.Jeff250 wrote:Thunderbunny has also skewed the numbers in order to fit his narrative. Namely, why are the numbers per murderer's race? That makes the racial majority look less murderous of other races than they really are just due to their numbers. Imagine a rare race of people that only had 10 surviving members. White people could commit complete genocide against this race, and it wouldn't even show up on the graph.
Are they?Jeff250 wrote:they are both equally likely to murder
Note that I'm not necessarily saying that the graphic isn't prejudiced... I'm just saying that your argument isn't that strong...Jeff250 wrote:Imagine that race X is 10% of the population and race Y is 90% of the population and that they are both equally likely to murder and that they choose their victims at random from the entire population. The "X killed by Y" bar is going to be barely visible compared to the "Y killed by X" bar, even though both X and Y are equally likely to murder and even though they just choose their victims at random from the entire population. This is why including the "blacks killed by whites" and "whites killed by blacks" bars in this graph is highly prejudicial and does nothing to compare anything we would actually care about.snoopy wrote:But, you're logic is backward because you're somehow valuing those 10 people more than everyone else out there. Conversely... if your race of 10 members has one murderer while the white race has 1,000, it would be fair to say that your races has more murderous tendencies.Jeff250 wrote:Thunderbunny has also skewed the numbers in order to fit his narrative. Namely, why are the numbers per murderer's race? That makes the racial majority look less murderous of other races than they really are just due to their numbers. Imagine a rare race of people that only had 10 surviving members. White people could commit complete genocide against this race, and it wouldn't even show up on the graph.
I don't know which you mean by common victim bars and common perpetrator bars. The only two bars I've spoken about are the "whites killed by blacks" and the "blacks killed by whites" bars. Returning to my example, suppose that someone from X or Y has a 1% chance of murdering a person chosen randomly from the entire population. We would then expect the # of X killed by Y per |X| to besnoopy wrote:Note that I'm not necessarily saying that the graphic isn't prejudiced... I'm just saying that your argument isn't that strong...
In your new example: both races equally likely to murder, pick their victims totally randomly - then that plot would match your population statistics - the common victim bars would both match... and the distribution between the common perpetrator bars would match the population distribution.
Yes, because that's the way I defined it. I suspect you're talking about black and white people though instead of X and Y. If you really have a case to make, I'm sure you can do it without resorting to using deceptive figures.Thunderbunny wrote:Are they?
(In your math you normalized by the victim's race.)Jeff250 wrote:Returning to my example, suppose that someone from X or Y has a 1% chance of murdering a person chosen randomly from the entire population. We would then expect the # of X killed by Y per |X| to be
(# of X killed by Y) / |X| = |Y| * Pr(Y murdered & the person murdered was an X) / |X| = |Y| * Pr(Y murdered) * Pr(a person is an X) / |X| = 0.9 * 0.01 * 0.1 / 0.1 = 0.009
Moreover, we would expect the # of Y killed by X per |Y| to be
|X| * Pr(X murdered) * Pr(a person is an Y) / |Y| = 0.1 * 0.01 * 0.9 / 0.9 = 0.001,
which is much lower number, despite the fact that both X and Y are equally likely to murder and each murders randomly from the entire population. Note that without misleadingly normalizing by murderer's race and instead normalizing by the entire population, then you end up with the same # in each case: 0.0009.
Whops, you're right--I had accidentally swapped the divisors, and I didn't notice in my post that the numbers came out the opposite of what I was saying they should be (X the smaller race looked 9x better). But when you divide by the right one, they prejudice the smaller race as I was saying (X the smaller race looks 9x worse).snoopy wrote:(In your math you normalized by the victim's race.)
Given normalizing by the perp's race:
X killed by Y per Y: .9*.01*.1/.9=.001 (1% of the X population density)
Y killed by X per X: .1*.01*.9/.1=.009 (1% of the Y population density)
I don't have an objection to these bars, but these weren't what the red arrow was pointing to either.snoopy wrote:If you furthermore looked at the other two bars:
X killed by X per X: .1*.01*.1/.1=.001 (1% of the X population density)
Y killed by Y per Y: .9*.01*.9/.9=.009 (1% of the Y population density)
If you have bars on a graph, there's an expectation that the bars should be comparable. For instance, you would expect X and Y in my example to be the same because they are both equally likely to murder and have no prejudice in who they murder, and yet X looks 9x worse. This issue can resolved by instead of normalizing by the murderer's race you normalize by the entire population. Otherwise, the bars on the graph are, while mathematically correct, deceptive and prejudicial.snoopy wrote:The question is what's the story that you're trying to tell. If you're trying to say "okay, I've got a victim, what are the odds on this perp's race" - then non-normalized gives you the answer. If you want to say "okay, I have a victim, which race is statistically more likely to have produced the perp" then normalized gives you the answer.
Yeah, I think ultimately the motive is to make the one with the big red arrow look as small as possible.Jeff250 wrote:This issue can resolved by instead of normalizing by the murderer's race you normalize by the entire population. Otherwise, the bars on the graph are, while mathematically correct, deceptive and prejudicial.